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  • Can I print out a personal copy of your PDF translations?
    You are most welcome to print out the translations for yourself and friends. (Only, of course, if the copies are not being sold). No commercial use is allowed. Please also note that the print books from Amazon are pirate copies with some changes made by the pirates. We have not printed / published any of our translations, but are planning to do so once we have made some minor updates / changes to the translations.
  • When will the Gospel of Luke be completed?
    We are making good progress with the Gospel of Luke, but it will take several more months to complete. We never released Luke version 1 for several reasons. One of the reasons is because it seemed that the Vatican manuscript had several scribal mistakes in Luke which needed correction. Rather than changing the text, we prayed and searched for more Hebrew manuscript copies of the same text type. These would enable us to correct any possible scribal error in the Vatican manuscript. A few months ago, we were blessed to gain access to, and identify several more copies of the Hebrew Gospels from Sepharad! (See this video for more information.) After we got hold of the three other copies of the Sephardic Hebrew Luke, we restarted the whole process, first creating a transcript based on the three best manuscripts (not just on one), then vowel pointing the transcript, then rechecking the translation. We are working on a project to vowel point the whole Hebrew transcript of Luke, which will make it much easier to use and read for most people.
  • Where can I learn Hebrew? Do you have resources for learning Hebrew?
    Below is some info on learning Biblical Hebrew. This should be a long term endeavour, the main challenge is -- you'll need to keep pursuing it for about 2 years before you really get paid back for what you've been doing. Many people stop after 3 or 6 months, but that is not enough to get started. If you learn the language well, you can finally do revision by simply reading and translating from the Hebrew Bible on a daily basis. Justin and some other members of the family also learned Hebrew at home, initially from Dr. Bill Barrick, who made his course available on YouTube. His textbook and workbook are also available for free. (see also the other attachments) Here is a link to his YouTube playlists: Though some of us went far beyond Dr. Barrick's requirements, this free course was a huge blessing to us. We did the first three and a half semesters, and then continued on our own as he then got into preaching and theology more than Hebrew. Although not a "Hebrew roots" person, Dr Barrick believes in literal creation, and in the accuracy and validity of the O.T. scriptures. (Regarding pronunciation, we mostly agree with Dr. Barrick's advice, except that we believe the Patach vowel should not be pronounced as the 'a' in 'pat' but more like the vowel in 'up' - similar to the 'a' in 'father'.) The first few videos are very slow and you can skip over the topics you have already learnt if you want to. If you keep up with this course, you will have a good basic understanding of Hebrew Grammar at the end of the first two semesters and will also practice to use this in the third semester. After completing these three semesters we used many other resources but found that reading and translating the Masoretic Text is probably the best way of learning more and more about Biblical Hebrew. After you understand how to read pointed Hebrew and how the vowel points and the vowel letters work you can move on to reading unpointed Hebrew e.g. the Dead Sea Scrolls. To read the Hebrew Bible without constantly referring to a lexicon for every verse, you will need a large Hebrew vocabulary (2000+ words). We'll attach a PDF of a good book for learning Hebrew vocabulary. Because this book arranges words by root it is excellent and helps one understand better how different Hebrew words are linked together. If you spread out the 2000 Hebrew words over two years, it is not so impossible. To memorize these words it works best to read them out loud, and the louder the better! To properly understand post-exilic Hebrew it will also be great if you could later learn Biblical Aramaic. Hebrew was influenced by Aramaic to some degree, especially during the Babylonian captivity. See also attached searchable Hebrew Dictionary that you will find useful... Also find our own conjugation table (for much later) as many Hebrew teachers use the verb 'qatal' - 'to kill' for their conjugation tables -- which we don't like to repeat over and over and over... We hope that you will be blessed as you learn more Biblical Hebrew! It has been a great blessing for us... B_B_Hebrew_Grammar_2005.pdf B_B_Hebrew_Grammar_Wkbk_Full.pdf George Landes Biblical Hebrew Vocabulary.pdf The Seven Conjugations.pdf Klein's Dictionary.pdf
  • ישוע - The name Yeshua. Why not Yashua, Yahusha, etc.?
    Keywords: Yeshua, Yahshua, Yahusha, Yahushah, Yahawashai, Yahushua, Yahhoshua, Yehoshua, Yohoshua, Joshua, ישוע, יהושוע, יהושע. Many question why we use the pronunciation Yeshua. However, we can know the correct pronunciation based on the Hebrew manuscripts with vowels. Unlike the Name YHWH, the scribes never put dummy vowels on the name Yeshua, and they still pronounce that name to this day. Thus there is no proof or evidence that the Masoretic pronunciations are wrong. They preserved the ancient pronunciation of Hebrew much better than any other source, except of course, where they purposefully changed the vowels (like with YHWH). There is the older and longer form Yehoshua (Pronounced Yohoshua by the Masoretes), and the later more contracted Yeshua. Both these are authentic, but the shorter spelling started to replace the long spelling hundreds of years before the birth of Yeshua. The Name Yeshua is from a contraction of a contraction of a contraction. That is why the contracted part "Ye-" ended with E instead of A. Yahweh contracts to Yahu, which in turn shortens to Yeho at the beginning of a word, and Yeho again shortened to Ye during the Babylonian Exile. The pronunciation Yahusha is claimed to be an 'alternative' pronunciation of 'Yehoshua.' It is based on the assumption that Yahu should not contract to Yeho at the beginning of a compound name. That is not true, as we showed in video 12 on the Name YHWH. Also, the full spelling "יהושוע" which shows the vowel U "oo" between the last two letters already occurs in Deu. 3:21 and Josh 2:7! That shows us that the pronunciation YehoshUa was not invented by the Masoretes at a later stage. (This is the false claim of the some of the proponents of the pronunciation Yahusha). The shorter biblical spelling “ישוע” (Yeshua) has been used since the time of Ezra – long before the birth of Yeshua the Messiah! (See e.g. Ezra 2:2, 2:6, 2:36 etc. and especially Nehemiah 8:17 where Joshua the son of Nun is even called “ישוע” (Yeshua), using the shorter spelling.) Thus the pronunciation ‘Yeshua’ was not invented later by anti-messianic Jews, as some have claimed. This shorter yet official, biblical spelling does not even contain a Hebrew 'He', and cannot be pronounced in Hebrew as YaH-shua or YaHusha - there is no 'He'! In video 12 we also showed that the same evidence which proved Yehovah to be false, also proves that the names Yehoshua etc. have their true vowels:
  • Where / when can I buy hard copies of the translations?
    Keywords: print book, hard copy; Amazon books. We have not printed / published any of our translations, but we are planning to do so once we have made some minor updates / changes to the translations. Please also note that the print books from Amazon are pirate copies with some changes made by the pirates. You are most welcome to print out the translations for yourself and friends. (Only non-commercial copies.) All our PDFs allow printing.
  • Can I quote from your translations? Can I link to your website?
    Thank you for wanting to share the news with others, and for wanting to use our translations in quotations. Firstly, we require that people do not refer to our website or resources in any way which suggests that we endorse claims which we did not make ourselves. No commercial use is allowed. Only if the above principles are followed; Our translations may be quoted freely (for non-commercial purposes only), as long as you clearly reference This will ensure that people know which translation you are quoting from, and will also enable others to download the translations from our website. You may link your website, channel, blog etc. to our website. You may add links to our website in any books / articles you write, but for non-commercial purposes only.
  • Is Yeshua Elohim? (Is Jesus God?) What about the Trinity?
    Keywords: Jehovah's Witnesses; Unitarianism, Trinitarianism; Trinity; unity; echad; ehad; אחד; YHWH is one; Yahweh is one; the Shema; worshiping Yeshua; We have done some study on this topic. We do not use nor defend the term 'trinity,' because that word is not in the Bible. It is always best to use Biblical terminology to describe or refer to Elohim, rather than man-made words. Below, we will share a short study on whether Yeshua is Elohim or not. Here are some reasons from the O.T. for believing that Messiah is Elohim, and that Elohim is not just one person, and also an explanation of the Hebrew meaning of "one": Ps. 45:6-7 speaks of the throne of Elohim. Throne is the first key word showing that we are reading about the Messiah who was to sit on David's throne, and here he is clearly called Elohim! In verse 7 it says "therefore O Elohim, your Elohim anointed you" - 'anointed' is yet another key word in Hebrew (Mashach) from which the word Mashiach is formed. So here we see that the Messiah is Elohim, and his Elohim anointed him! This passage is quoted in Hebrews 1:8-9. See also Mat. 1:23, which is quoted from Is.7:14; Is.9:6-7; John 10:30 where Yeshua says in allusion to Is.9:6 and Deu. 6:4 that "I and the father are one". It is well known that Elohim is a plural noun, but plural nouns are used for singular persons in the Hebrew O.T. So, to see whether Elohim is really more than one person, we need to look at verbs and pronominal suffixes etc. Though Elohim is mostly used with singular verbs etc. (which places emphasis on the fact that Elohim is one / united), here are some clear examples in the O.T. of Elohim being plural: Gen 1:26 - Elohim refers to himself as being plural Gen 11:6-9 - YHWH refers to himself as being plural Gen 20:13 - Abraham uses plural verb referring to the true Elohim Gen 35:7 - Jacob uses plural verb referring to the true Elohim Josh 24:19 Joshua uses plural adjective referring to the true Elohim Now, what about the "YHWH is One" verse?? Good question, this is probably the no.1 argument of Jews against believers in Yeshua. I see that the answer is extremely clear from the Hebrew use of the word 'echad' (one) in the O.T. in fact we don't have to look any further than Genesis to get the answer: In Gen. 2:24 it says that "they (plural, a man and a woman) will be one flesh." Two distinct persons can be one flesh. So, you have seen my Dad on the videos, but you have never seen my Mom, right? Yet Biblically speaking, they are one. This explains how humans can see Elohim without dying, they can see Yeshua who is the mediator and who is one with the Father. The second example is from Gen. 41:22-26: It clearly says that Pharaoh had TWO dreams, that he woke up in-between, that the two dreams were different, and here comes Joseph and says to Pharaoh, "Pharaoh's dream is one"!! It doesn't even say "are" but "is". So, is Joseph making Pharaoh a liar by saying that his dream (singular) is (singular) one (singular)?? No, this is the Hebrew way of saying 'united' - 'Echad'. Joseph is not denying that Pharaoh had two dreams, or that they were different, he is saying that the two dreams are united, and that they give the same message. The same is true with YHWH. "YHWH is one" does not deny that there is more than one person. This rather means (among many other things) that Yeshua will not teach differently than the Father, and that YHWH's spirit will not teach differently either. In fact, in Ex 34 it first says that Moses spoke to YHWH face to face, and then later in the same chapter it says "You can not see my face, for no flesh shall see me and live". - In the same chapter! NO ONE can see him and live? What is the solution to this seeming contradiction? It is very clear to me that whenever YHWH / Elohim appeared, throughout the entire history of the world, it was Yeshua, who can be seen, who is also the mediator between the Father and man, and who is also YHWH / Elohim. YHWH appeared to Adam and Eve, walking with them in the garden, he appeared to Abraham Isaac and Jacob, to Moses, Aaron, Nadab and Abihu together with 70 elders of Israel on Mount Sinai. Yeshua said, "Before Abraham was, I am" clearly claiming that he was there at the time of Abraham! Yeshua as the Creator should not make one feel distant from the Father, Yeshua is our mediator and He (Yeshua) is the Elohim of Abraham Isaac and Jacob. We understand that some Christians never pray to the Father and that this is not Biblical, we should pray to the Father in the name (authority) of his Son. However, Yeshua accepted worship and prayer on several occasions, and never rebuked his disciples etc. for worshiping a 'mere' human.
  • Matthew 23 - "he says" or "they say"? Shem Tov vs. Vat Ebr. 100?
    People often think hat that the Vat. Ebr. 100 manuscript is not as accurate as the Shem Tov Matthew, or that we mistranslated Mattew 23:2-3: "It is said: ‘The scribes and the Perushim have ascended onto the seat of Mosheh – all that they say to you, you must keep and do.’ However, you must not do according to their works, for they say but they do not do." - Mat 23:2-3, translated from Vat. Ebr. 100. They have been taught that the original reading is (based on Shem Tov Matthew: "Yeshua spoke... saying, "The Pharisees and Sages sit on the seat of Mosheh. Therefore, everything which he says to you, keep and do! But you must not do their ordinances and their deeds, for they say, but they do not do". However, Vat. ebr. 100actually solves the problem better than the Shem Tov! In the Shem Tov, Yeshua states that the Scribes and Pharisees sit on Moses's seat, but we should not obey them, only Moses. Okay, so does Yeshua confirm that they sit on the seat of Moses? Does Yeshua confirm that they have Moses' authority? Well, in the Vat. Ebr. 100, the verb for 'say' is plural, and translates, "They say, "The scribes and Pharisees sit on Moses's seat..." This is an idiom in Hebrew for "it is said / it is claimed." This is something that was claimed by others, not by Yeshua. Thus there is no contradiction in Vat Ebr. 100 about this issue. Yeshua does not confirm the authority of the Pharisees at all.
  • Are you selling books on Amazon, or are these pirate copies?
    We have not printed / published any of our translations, but are planning to do so once we have made some minor updates / changes to the translations. Please also note that the print books from Amazon are pirate copies with some changes made by the pirates. You are most welcome to print out the translations for yourself and friends. (Only non-commercial copies.) All our PDFs allow printing.
  • How can I learn to read the Sephardic script in Vat. Ebr. 100?
    We have compiled a PDF with
  • Genealogy of Yeshua - father of Mary or husband of Mary?
    keywords: father of Miryam; husband of Miryam; Matthew 1:16; Mat. 1:16; 14 generations, 13 generations. We have often been told that Matthew 1:16 is mistranslated in our version of the Hebrew Matthew. However, we correctly translated the Hebrew text of the Vatican Ebr. 100 manuscript. It refers to Yoseph as the "betrothed / bridegroom" (ארוס) of Miryam. The reason this is seen as a mistake, is that if you count the generations from the Babylonian captivity till Yeshua, there are only 13 generations, not 14. Many people will then say that Matthew originally wrote that "Yoseph" was the "father" of Miryam, not her husband. That would add an extra generation and make 14 generations as stated in Matthew 1:17. We are aware of 2 Hebrew manuscripts which read "father of Miryam" and we did note that in a footnote in Matthew chapter 1:16. The only problem with these 2 manuscripts, is that they are copies of the Shem Tov version, which is not always reliable. The problem with the Shem Tov version is that it was copied by people who denied Yeshua, rejected him as Messiah, and deleted every instance in which the original author himself specifically identified Yeshua as ‘the Messiah.’ In the Greek version of Matthew, the author himself identifies Yeshua as the Messiah in four passages only: Mat.1:1; 1:17; 1:18; 11:2, whereas the Shem Tov Matthew never once refers to Yeshua as the Messiah from the author’s own perspective. The fact that Yeshua was ‘called’ the Messiah (by others), and that e.g. Peter acknowledged him as such was retained in the text. But because every instance where the author Matthew himself called Yeshua the Messiah was deleted, the Shem Tov version of Matthew is an anti-Messianic (or at best neutral) book. It gives the impression that not even the author of the Gospel of Matthew would acknowledge that Yeshua was indeed the Messiah. So, can one trust the Shem Tov version to always be accurate? Although the "father of Miryam" seems to be a very good solution to the problem, we would like to see more manuscript evidence and / or do more study on the subject, as there are at least two other interesting possible answers to this contradiction in the Greek version of Matthew. 1. The Du Tillet Mathew has an extra name (Avner) inserted between Avihud and Elyaqim, which makes fourteen generations. 2. If the Shem Tov Matthew is to be trusted, please note that 7 of the 9 Shem Tov manuscripts used by George Howard (including the two best manuscripts,) do not say anything about fourteen generations at all. Thus most of the Shem Tov manuscripts read "...Ya'qov begot Yoseph. This Yoseph was the husband of Miryam, the mother of Yeshua who is called Mashiach (In a foreign language Kristos). It came to pass when his mother was betrothed to Yoseph..." So, based on the best manuscripts of the Shem Tov tradition, there is no need to make 14 generations between the Babylonian exile and Yeshua. We still think that the "father of Miryam" makes most sense, and hope that one day Messianic Hebrew manuscripts will be found with the same reading.
  • Should I report typos and possible mistakes?
    Yes please! We greatly appreciate feedback from readers. If you notice any mistakes, possible mistakes, or typos in our translations etc., please contact us via this address: You are also welcome to make suggestions for possible improvements, even if it is not really a mistake.
  • The Ending of Mark: Long or Short?
    The issue of the ending of Mark is quite interesting... We do not see it as a later addition. Also, in the Hebrew version the last section is very Jewish and authentic. E.g. verse 15 mentions "the word of the King of heavens." -- "Elohim of heavens" and "King of heavens" are terms which were used frequently since the time of the Babylonian Exile. Verse 17 mentions "alternative languages" or "exchange of languages" rather than "new languages," showing the correct understanding of the gift of tongues. In verse 10 the Hebrew version has two verb forms from the same root: "אונחים" and "מתאנחים", both from the root "אנח". In the Greek version only one of these was translated. Possibly the translator did not know how to distinguish between these two words, and thus translated only the one to avoid redundancy in the translation. In verse 12, the Hebrew text says that Yeshua appeared "in the form of strangers." As explained in Luke, Yeshua pretended to be a stranger. In the Greek version of Mark 16:12 "strangers" are not mentioned, rather it is said that Yehsua appeared in "another form". It might not have made sense to the translator to say that Yeshua appeared as "strangers", but that is just an expression, and shows that Yeshua was not a stranger when He appeared, he just seemed like a stranger. And furthermore, we don't think it is Biblical to say that Yeshua appeared in different shapes / forms at different times. Rather, the setting was different, and Yeshua's behaviour was different. These differences seem to show authenticity in the Hebrew text, and an interpretive translation into Greek. Furthermore, there is great doubt about the so-called "oldest Greek manuscripts." Especially when it comes to the ending of Mark. The Codex Sinaiticus and Vaticanus were both edited by one later scribe who re-wrote the last part of Mark to remove the final section. One should also remember that "textual criticism" is not a new science, even in ancient times scribes would sometimes edit the text and remove what they thought was redundant / non-original. We'll attach a link to a book which covers a lot of information about the Sinaiticus, and also discusses the ending of Mark. The writer is a Christian who defends the TR, and we do not agree with all his claims. Still, he has put together a lot of excellent information on the subject. Keywords: Sinaiticus, Codex Sinaiticus, Ending of Mark, Short ending of Mark, Long ending of Mark, Gospel of Mark,
  • What is the correct pronunciation of the full name יהוה (YHWH)?
    Please refer to the videos for below for a clear explanation of the true pronunciation as "Yah-weh" (emphasis on second syllable). We know the true pronunciation based on the shortened forms Yahu (as in YeshaYahu) and Yah (as in HalleluYah). Combine these contracted forms with a good understanding of Hebrew Grammar, and we have the answer to the correct pronunciation of the full name YHWH! If the above videos do not answer your question, please send us an email.
  • Waw or Vav? Should the 6th letter in the Hebrew Aleph Bet be pronounced with a 'v' or 'w' sound?
    Short answer: This Hebrew letter was originally pronounced as a semi-vowel, very similar (or the same) as the English 'w' sound. This Hebrew letter ו (Waw / Vav) is the 6th letter in the Hebrew Aleph-Bet, and is pronounced differently in various dialects of Hebrew. Some dialects (and Modern Hebrew) use the 'v' sound, and then this letter is called 'Vav'. Other dialects use a 'w' sound which makes the name of this Hebrew letter 'Waw'. We have an in-depth video which discusses the evidence for both pronunciations, and shows very clearly that the Waw is the ancient Biblical pronunciation. We also cover the arguments about possible Arabic influence for the Waw, European influence for the Vav, and supposed proof for Vav from the Mishnah and ancient Jewish poems.
  • Is Yahuah a possible pronunciation?
    Keywords: Yahuah, Yahueh, two vowels in a row, Waw always an oo sound?. The pronunciation Yahuah is quite simply not possible in Hebrew. In Hebrew, two vowels cannot stand back-to-back internally in a word. There must always be a consonant between every vowel and the following vowel. The only exception to this rule, is when a word ends with a guttural letter. That is the only examples in the Hebrew Bible were two vowels can occur back-to-back in one Hebrew word. E.g. Ruach, or Gavoah (with guttural 'He'). For more information about two vowels in a row, please follow this link. The Name YHWH does not end in a guttural 'He' and therefore cannot have two vowels in a row. For evidence that the Name YHWH ends in a silent (vowel letter) 'He,' and does not end with a guttural letter 'He,' follow this link. Furthermore, the pronunciation Yahuah is often based on the incorrect assumption that the Waw must always be a vowel - an 'oo' sound, and was originally never used as a consonant. But this is not the case. The ancient pronunciation of the Waw was similar to the English 'w' sound, it was a semi-vowel. In other words, it was somewhat between consonant and a vowel in it's original pronunciation. In the Hebrew Bible, there are many examples where the Waw was used as a consonant, and many examples of the Waw as a vowel. (See this video for more info on the Waw). The above-mentioned rule that two vowels don't occur in a row shows us that the Waw in the full Name YHWH cannot be a vowel, and also be followed by yet another vowel.
  • What about the Enochian (solar only) calendar?
    Keywords: solar calendar; Enochian calendar; Biblical calendar; book of Enoch; Chanoq; Chanok; Hanok; Hanoq. We have carefully studied the claims of the Enochian solar calendar, and will share our conclusions below: The Enochian Calendar is basically founded on the mythological explanation of the universe, sun, moon, stars, etc. Below are some clear flaws in the Enochian calendar. Based on the book of 1 Enoch: Every year has exactly 364 days, and that never changes in eternity. Is this true? Enoch 74:12 "And the sun and the stars bring in all the years exactly, so that they do not advance or delay their position by a single day unto eternity; but complete the years with perfect justice in 364 days." This did not happen, and in fact, the Enochian Calendar is now more than 2000 days out if it has been counting from the 1st century CE, because every year is a bit more than 365 days. Sun and Moon rise and set through specific portals. Is this true? E.g. Enoch 72:17-19"And the sun goes forth from that sixth portal in the west, and goes to the east and rises in the fifth portal for thirty mornings, and sets in the west again in the fifth western portal. 18 On that day the day decreases by †two† parts, and amounts to ten parts and the night to eight parts. 19 And the sun goes forth from that fifth portal and sets in the fifth portal of the west, and rises in the fourth portal for one-and-thirty mornings on account of its sign, and sets in the west." It is a fact that such portals don't exist, and without the portals the Enochian calendar is totally false. Based on the Enoch calendar the months have nothing to do with the moon, and one can only know the beginning and end of every month based on the secrets revealed to Enoch about the supposed portals, 8 months have 30 days, and 4 months 31. And the sun and the moon sometimes rise through the same portal!? Enoch 74:4-8 "And in certain months she alters her settings, and in certain months she pursues her own peculiar course. 5 In two months the moon sets with the sun: in those two middle portals the third and the fourth. 6 She goes forth for seven days, and turns about and returns again through the portal where the sun rises, and accomplishes all her light: and she recedes from the sun, and in eight days enters the sixth portal from which the sun goes forth. 7 And when the sun goes forth from the fourth portal she goes forth seven days, until she goes forth from the fifth and turns back again in seven days into the fourth portal and accomplishes all her light: and she recedes and enters into the first portal in eight days. 8 And she returns again in seven days into the fourth portal from which the sun goes forth..." By the way, the specific relationship of the position of the sun vs. the moon in the sky is only applicable for the Northern hemisphere. It is not generally true. The moving of the sun from one portal to the next happens overnight! Not a gradual shift between the seasons? Enoch 72:10-11 "On that day... the sun rises from that fourth portal, and sets in the fourth and returns to the fifth portal of the east thirty mornings, and rises from it and sets in the fifth portal." The sun moon and stars rise through the same 6 portals! Are the sun moon and stars not at various different distances from the earth? Enoch 72:3 "And I saw six portals in which the sun rises, and six portals in which the sun sets: and the moon rises and sets in these portals, and the leaders of the stars and those whom they lead: six in the east and six in the west." Based on the above information we conclude that the Enochian calendar is not just far-fetched but totally impossible and untrue. See this post for more information about the true Biblical calendar.
  • Which Calendar is correct? What is your view on the Biblical calendar?
    Keywords: calendar; biblical calendar; lunar calendar; solar calendar; Enochian calendar; lunar Sabbath; Jewish calendar; new moon; We have studied various calendars, but mostly we have tried to understand the Biblical calendar. We will share some of our conclusions below. (See these separate posts for information of the Enochian and lunar Sabbath calendars). Info on the Biblical Calendar: Although the Jewish calendar acknowledges most of the below mentioned principles, it is unfortunately based on a pre-calculated estimation of when the new moon and the turn of the season will occur, rather than by observing the new moon or looking / waiting for the turn of the year. Thus it removes the element of uncertainty and expectation from the Biblical calendar. It also avoids any occurance of a feast day on a Sabbath, by moving the Sabbath to the following day, which is never commanded in the Bible. They often have two high Sabbaths with a feast where the Bible stipulates only one. The Jewish calendar vs. Biblical calendar could either coincide or be more than a month apart in various different years! To determine the correct day for a feast etc., we basically only need to know three things: 1. The start of the day 2. The start of the month 3. The start of the year All the other details are explained in the Torah in e.g. Lev. 23. We believe that the calendar should be based on the sun, moon and stars as stated in Genesis 1: Gen. 1:14 "And Elohim said, 'Let there be lights in the expanse of the heavens to separate the day from the night. And let them be for signs and for appointed times (feast times), and for days and years...'" The Hebrew word for appointed times / feast times is 'mo'adim' - the same word also used in Lev. 23 in connection to the feasts of YHWH: Lev. 23:1 Then YHWH spoke with Mosheh: "Speak with the children of Israel and say to them, 'The appointed times / feasts of YHWH, which you must proclaim as set-apart gatherings, these are My appointed times / feasts.'" So, we learn from Genesis chapter 1 that the lights in the heavens were created to show when a day, year, or appointed time starts. We do not need the barley harvest etc. to know the start of the year. To keep it simple, this is how we are convinced that one should determine the dates: 1. The day starts at sunset. We can easily learn this from the Bible, e.g. Gen. 1:5 mentions night first, then day. (and so throughout Genesis 1.) "And it was evening, then it was morning, day one." Another good example is Lev. 23:32 "It is a high Sabbath for you, and you must afflict yourselves on the ninth of the month in the evening, from evening to evening you must keep your Sabbath." Even in the NT we can see that the High Sabbath of the day of Unleavened Bread would begin at sunset: John 19:31 translated from Hebrew: "Now the evening would be Shabbat. And thus the Yehudim – in order that the bodies should not remain on warp and woof on the Shabbat (for that Shabbat would be a great Feast) – entreated Pilate that he should give them permission that they could cut off the thighs of those who were hanged up..." 2. The month starts at sighting of the new moon sliver (independent of the week). The literal meaning of 'Chodesh' (חדש) is 'newness.' But Chodesh very often means "month," e.g. in Gen. 7:11; 8:4,5,13,14; Gen 29:14, Gen. 38:24. Just a few examples. So, somehow the word "new" or "newness" is equated with "month." How is it connected? By the "new moon," which marks the beginning of every month. It should be remembered that YHWH stated that 'light-sources' (plural) in the heavens will be for "appointed times, and days, and years." (Gen 1:14) If the new-moon does not indicate the beginning of the month, then the moon plays no part in determining the 'mo'adim' (appointed times), and Genesis 1:14 would be untrue. Just as in English 'month' comes from the word 'moon,' so in Hebrew there is the word 'Yerach.' Yerach (ירח) is just a different vocalization of "Yareach" (ירח), which means "moon." This word Yerach 'moon-th' is a synonym of Chodesh! Ex 2:2 "...she hid him for three months." Deu. 21:13 "...and she must weep for her father and her mother for a month's days..." 1Kings 8:2 "in the month (Yerach) of Ha'etanim, on the feast which is the seventh month (Chodesh)." Thus moon-th (month) and new-moon are synonyms in the Hebrew Bible. Chodesh "new-moon" can also refer to a specific day, the day on which the month starts: 1Sam 20:5 "tomorrow is new-moon" 1Sam. 20:27 "the second morning after the new-moon" Num. 28:14 "This is the burnt offering for the new-moon" 2King. 4:32 "Why are you going to him today? It is no Sabbath, nor new-moon." Here it is so clear that 'Chodesh' does not always mean 'month,' because every day is part of some month. The above verses from 1Sam 20 also seem to show that the new moon was expected to fall on either of two days, thus they would celebrate the first day of the new moon, as well as the second day of the new moon. If you want to plan a feast-meal ahead of time to fall on new moon, you should be flexible with about 2 days. You could see the new moon on the first night, or if you did not see it you'd have to wait till the second night. In 2Sam 20 it seems they just kept both nights to avoid the uncertainty. The uncertainty of the start of the new moon also explains how Yeshua would return (in future) on a specific calendar day while no one knows the day or hour ahead of time. For these reasons we believe that the earliest possible sighted new-moon sliver is the correct night to start the month. This is typically a day later than the secular 'new moon' / 'no moon' conjunction on secular calendars. And typically 29-30 days apart. However, if there are clouds blocking the view, the start of the new month stands over till the next day, day 30. 3. The year starts on the first new moon after the equinox, the turn of the season in spring (in Israel - northern hemisphere). We know this because in the first month they were to offer the firstfruits of the grain harvest. That would not be possible in autumn, winter, or summer. Only in spring. Lev. 23:10-14 "...when you come unto the land which YHWH which I will give to you and harvest its harvest, then you must bring the first Omer of your harvest to the priest... 14 You must not eat bread or parched grain or fresh ears until this very day..." (This is to be offered on the Sabbath after Passover in the first month of the year.) Though the grain harvest shows the beginning of the year to be roughly spring time in Israel, we do not use the barley harvest to determine the new year, rather the spring equinox based on the sun. If you use the sun based new year the barley will always be ripe. (They were allowed to harvest but not to eat of the new harvest until the first fruits were offered.) The sun-based new year never starts as early as the earliest barley-based new year.
  • Lunar Sabbath or Seventh day Sabbath?
    Keywords: lunar Sabbath; lunar calendar; lunar only calendar. Below we will share some info on the Lunar Sabbath calendar: 'Sabbath' and 'feast' are sometimes used interchangeably, because the feast days are high Sabbaths. We would like to point out that it is clear from the Torah that generally, the New moons do not coincide with Sabbath. Of course the Sabbath would overlap with the new moon about once every seven months or so. We find clear indication of this in Numbers 28 & 29: First, we are told what the daily offering is. Then the offering for the Sabbath. What is interesting here is that it clearly spells out that the Sabbath offering does not replace the daily offering, but that the daily offering should continue even on the Sabbath. Next is the offering for the New Moons. Here we are again told that this offering does not replace the daily offering, however it does not say anything about the Sabbath offering. If the Sabbath always coincided with new moon it would have said clearly that the monthly offering does not replace the Sabbath offering (or else it would have spelled out that it does replace the Sabbath offering if that were the case). So, this is a clear indication that the new moons do not coincide with Sabbath. Next we read about the Passover, and we are told what offerings are to be offered on the 15th day of the 1st month. Again, if the lunar Sabbath is correct, the 15th day of the month is always a Sabbath, and thus we should see an indication saying that the offerings of this feast day do / do not replace the Sabbath offering, but we don’t. We are only reminded that the daily offering must continue. So far, it’s pretty clear from the Torah that the new moons do not always coincide with the Sabbath. Further down we read about the feast of Trumpets. What is interesting here, is that we are clearly told that both the monthly sacrifices and the daily sacrifices must continue. This clearly indicates that every Feast of trumpets will coincide with the first day of the month. If the new moons always began the new Sabbaths we would of course had a similar statement at the description of the monthly offerings, as well as the offerings on the 15th of the 1st month, and also the 15th of the 7th month, and again on the 21st of the 7th month, but we never see any indication in these two chapters that the new moons should always coincide with the Sabbath. On the contrary, this is very clear evidence that according to the Torah, the new moons do not normally coincide with the sabbaths. See also this post for more information about the Biblical Calendar.
  • Should we keep the Torah? Is the Torah only for the Jews?
    Keywords: Should we only keep the 10 commandments?; Torah; 10 Commandments; Law; eternal; strangers; sojourners; gentiles. We believe that the New Covenant is also made with Israel and Judah, and not with some new entity (Jer. 31:31). We believe that followers of Yeshua are grafted into the true Israel, thus, they are no longer gentiles. (Romans 11:11-24 and Ephesians 2:11-22). We also see prophecies in Eze. 40-48 about a future temple where there will be offerings and even sin offerings. YHWH will dwell in that temple forever! (Eze. 43:7). Yeshua taught in Matthew 5: "Do not think that I came to throw down the Torah and the Prophets, on the contrary, I came to confirm. 18 I say unto you in truth, that not one word will be diminished from the Torah – that it would not be performed until the end of the world. 19 And whosoever transgresses one of these smallest commandments, or teaches to break them, he will be small in the kingdom of heavens. On the contrary, whosoever teaches it [Torah] and carries it [Torah] out, great will he be in the kingdom of heavens" (Mat 5 version 2.2) Thus, we know that Paul and the other disciples, as followers of Yeshua, were people who kept and taught the Torah. Those who insist to disagree on this conclusion, either reject the words of Yeshua and claim that Yahweh changed his mind, or else they'll have to say that Paul and his followers are least in the Kingdom of Heaven. Still, there are people who think that the Torah is only for the Jews, and that Gentiles should only keep a few of the Torah's commandments. They think that most of YHWH's commands are irrelevant to the grafted-in believer. However, the Bible teaches that, generally, all the commands apply equally to the native Jew and the grafted-in stranger (gentile). The Torah states: Ex. 12:49 There shall be one law for the native and for the stranger who sojourns among you. Num. 15:16 One law and one rule shall be for you and for the stranger who sojourns with you. Num. 15:29 You shall have one law for him who does anything unintentionally, for him who is native among the people of Israel and for the stranger who sojourns among them. Therefore, we believe that the only possible exception would be if the Torah explicitly states that a certain law only applies to certain people, e.g. men, women, priests, kings, and very rarely there is a rule specified specifically for the native Israelites. E.g. Circumcision is commanded for all physical descendants of Abraham, plus those born in his house or bought with his money. Right from the start, YHWH never commanded Abraham to circumcise any stranger who sojourned with him. Thus, in the Torah we see that strangers are allowed to join the Isrealites without being circumcised first. Then, after joining Israel, any children born in the congregation of Israel must be circumcised. And if they want to participate in Passover (lamb), then they all need to be circumcised right away. So, in this example we see that Circumcision and the Passover lamb is 'optional' for a stranger who just joined Israel, but the Unleavened Bread is for all the Israelites and all the strangers among them. Such an exception is extremely rare in the Torah.
  • What is the correct interpretation of Colossians 2:14-17?
    keywords: Did Paul teach that we should NOT keep the Torah?; Law; Torah; Moadim; Mo'adim; feast days; new moons; Sabbaths; Matthew 5:18. We have not yet seen any authentic Hebrew Manuscripts of Colossians, only translations to Hebrew. Thus our discussion below will simply be based on the Greek text. "Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of a feast day or a new moon or a sabbath day: which are a shadow of the things to come; but the body is Christ’s. " (Col. 2:16-17, ASV) So, Paul either told the Colossians to ignore feast days, new moons and sabbaths (in spite of other people judging them), or else he told them to keep doing feast days, new moons and sabbaths (in spite of other people judging them). One's preconceived beliefs will determine which way you see it. 1. We need to read this in the right context. Rather than assuming that "of course the Colossians did not keep the Sabbaths and Feasts", we need to realize that Paul who evangelized the Colossians, did keep the feasts, the Sabbath, and the Torah. So, Paul states here that Yahweh's feasts are prophetic ("a shadow") of future events ("things to come"). Some translations read "things that were to come," but that is contrary to the Greek wording. See any Greek lexicon or do a word study on "μελλω" [Louw-Nida 67.62, Strongs Greek 3195]. Not only does the Greek word "μελλοντων" mean "future things", but the verb "εστιν" (translated "are") is in the present tense, not past tense. 2. Paul taught very clearly that we should not sin, and that the Torah defines what sin is. E.g. Rom 6:15 "What then? Should we sin because we are not under law but under grace? Absolutely not!" (HCSB) Rom. 3:20 "for by the law is the knowledge of sin." (KJV) Rom. 7:7 "I would not have known what sin was except through the law." (NIV) 1Joh. 3:4 "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is the transgression of the law." (KJV) Consider also Romans 2:23 "You who boast in the law, do you dishonor God by breaking the law?" (HCSB) Ironically, many teach that we should honour, believe and defend the Old Testament, "Just don't try to keep it." Actually, it dishonours Elohim if we transgress his law. 3. Because Paul taught his followers not to sin, and proclaimed that the Torah defines what sin is, we can rightly assume that Paul's followers did keep the Feasts, the Sabbaths, and the Dietary instructions of Yahweh. 4. Then, why does it say, "let no man judge you"? Because they were judged by the pagans who lived around them. These heathen people could not understand what happened to their family and friends who are now following the Jewish Messiah, Yahweh's Torah, keeping Yahweh's Sabbaths and Dietary laws. They judged the followers of Yeshua for following Him and His ways. Just like so many people today judge us because we follow Yeshua, keep His Feasts, His Sabbaths, His Dietary laws, etc. They judge and condemn us because we keep those things, not because we reject YHWH's instructions. So, Paul either told the Colossians to sin (= break the Torah) in spite of other people judging them, or else he told them not to sin (= to keep the Torah) in spite of other people judging them. But the New Testament makes it very clear that the Torah defines sin, and believers in Yeshua must not sin. The bottom line is that this verse can be interpreted in two completely opposing ways. The correct one is the one that agrees with the rest of the Bible, and especially with the teachings of Yeshua himself, e.g. "Do not think that I came to throw down the Torah and the Prophets, on the contrary, I came to confirm. 18 I say unto you in truth, that not one word will be diminished from the Torah – that it would not be performed until the end of the world. 19 And whosoever transgresses one of these smallest commandments, or teaches to break them, he will be small in the kingdom of heavens. On the contrary, whosoever teaches it [Torah] and carries it [Torah] out, great will he be in the kingdom of heavens" (Mat 5 version 2.2) Thus, we know that Paul and the other disciples, as followers of Yeshua, were people who kept and taught the Torah. Those who insist to disagree on this conclusion, either reject the words of Yeshua and claim that Yahweh changed his mind, or else they'll have to say that Paul and his followers are least in the Kingdom of Heaven. Let's also have a look at Colossians 2:14: "He erased the certificate of debt, with its obligations, that was against us and opposed to us, and has taken it out of the way by nailing it to the cross." (HCSB) The " certificate of debt" refers to our guilt which Yeshua bore on the cross. The explanation " that was against us and opposed to us" clearly shows that this cannot refer to the Torah. Yahweh's Torah is not against us nor bad for us. We will be blessed if we keep Yahweh's instructions, but cursed if we disobey His instructions. Deu. 11:26, "Look, I am setting before you today a blessing and a curse: The blessing, if you obey the commandments of Yahweh your Elohim which I am commanding you today; and the curse, if you do not obey the commandments of Yahweh your Elohim..." When we break Yahweh's law, we sin, and sin is bad for us. Yeshua nailed our transgression (sin) to the cross so that we don't have to bear the punishment of our sin if we accept his sacrifice. Yeshua did not nail His eternal commandments and ordinances to the cross so that we can do whatever we want. Yeshua warned against such misunderstandings in Matthew 5, we should never think that Yeshua came to nail the Torah and Prophets to the cross (to destroy / do away with them).

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